



No, it's not identical, but there's a formula (probably used by the example you and gob used) that says that the cost of buying 50 tickets (might not be that many, might be 25) doesn't move the odds of paying off enough to justify it. Something about marginal spend.Yeah, but having fifty 1-in-whatever odds is 50 times more than having one 1-in-whatever odds.
As it relates to the Powerball, I'd agree that going from 1-in-whatever odds to 50-in-whatever odds is virtually inconsequential, but it's not identical.